No, they do it because people might not accept it otherwise, when bad, or might not accept it as well as they want when good... which tells you more about the morals of the day then anything. What actually was going on doesn't, because i'm sure people in the future will have a better idea of the crap that's going on behind the scenes then most people have atm (secret prisons in europe are still a thing last i heard).
It's people that make up their own justifications for doing bad stuff...
But those morals of the day are not fixed, they can and do change. I understood Soliloquy's question to be about whether or not there exists an objective right and wrong, something that is universal and constant regardless of time and circumstance.[/QUOTE]
Murder was always wrong, even if the circumstances of what would be considered murder might change, and genocide was always denounced by everyone, as long as they where talking about the other side, while doing it themselves... hypocrisy was and is well spread you know. There are plenty of things people from all times would recognize as "wrong" as long as you put it in a way that affect them (even only emotionally). Slavery was compatible with freedom because blacks weren't human, same thing foe women in Ancient Greece/Athens... [/QUOTE]
This is kind of my point. As you said, what constitutes murder changes with the times. But so does what people consider right and wrong. Murder itself is simply a label people put on unlawful killing, which tells one little of their morals. It is what they consider to be unlawful killing (murder) which is the significant factor in determining the morals of the day in that part at least, IMO.
As to genocide, I am aware of relatively few (though some) instances in history where large groups were targeted for extermination solely because of their race or culture, so I am interpreting your meaning of genocide in this case to be mass killing, and that people who were negatively affected by it in any significant way have always thought it was wrong. This is quite probably true to an extent, people have a tendency to view things which are bad for them or theirs in a negative light, no matter what it is. Hypocrisy and double standards? Perhaps. Conclusive evidence of something being objectively wrong? I don't really see it, at least not if the perception of the 'bad' thing (whatever it may be) is largely based on the victims complaining about it. (DISCLAIMER: No-one should take this as me endorsing mass killings. I think they are wrong and horrible, and apparently the majority of the people think the same. But what I think doesn't really matter on the level we're talking about, objectiveness in the grand scheme of things)
On slavery, what you say may be true in part for the perceptions of the time of the slave trade from Africa. But debt bondage, indentured servitude and sale of war captives as slaves are a couple of examples of cases where people who often were considered completely human and perfectly free before the fact were reduced to a condition and status that modern understanding largely classifies as slavery.
On women's rights, if you mean inequality with men then you don't need to go as far back in history as ancient Athens. With a few cultures as exceptions, you could ask any person who lived say before the 20th century (to be sure) if the women in his/her culture have the same rights and opportunities as their male counterparts. I believe the honest answer would be "No".
The way I saw it, you were taking issue with me pointing out that people are ignoring those other parts...
Well then, i guess this was more of a misunderstanding then anything... but it sure did look like in the beginning you where saying that it contributed nothing.
... The effects of this reparation (for which the money was borrowed from foreign banks at quite a high rate of interest) might well have had a greatly negative impact on the development of Haiti...
^ Maybe you missed that ^
Though it is true that I view the french indemnity to have contributed markedly less to Haiti's current situation than many of the other factors.
I felt it useful to clarify that the Pope was not criticising the Inquisition per se or the methods it employed (torture, executions etc), but rather indeed the early abuses.
You mean the early abuses of using torture to extract false confessions?!
No, I mean the early abuses of using torture to extract false confessions
from the wrong people - wrong people according to the Pope, that is. Torture was an acceptable means of interrogation and punishment in serious crimes back in the day.
As to the genocide part, if everyone were genocidal at that time, who are we to judge from centuries in the future? We might view the goings-on back then as horrible and barbaric, but at the end of the day, what claim do we have to any form of 'Ultimate Wisdom' on what is set-in-stone right and wrong? There's no guarantee people 1000 years into the future will think anything like us, and the truths we may hold to be self-evident today could be nothing but a footnote in history to them. Are we (and our descendants by association) really responsible to them for our behaviour, even though we have no clue as to how they will think we should have acted? Are the people of the distant past responsible to us and our truths?
But we do.... just look at all the european chronicles condemning Genghis Khan while their own people employed very similar methods.
"Everybody else is doing it!" was always a lame excuse.
One could say that the deeds attributed to Genghis Khan by the chronicles were unusual for the time at least in their scale. Even the things that really happened seem to be.
On a bit of a tangent, regardless of what some medieval chroniclers would have their readers believe, the designated enemies of the day were usually not in league with netherworldly powers, rarely fielded demons, vampires or werewolves as part of their forces, and seldom engaged in death and destruction for it's own sake or kicked puppies and ate babies for teh lulz. They did engage in deliberate death and destruction, but, assuming rational leaders, there was usually a reason for it. Perhaps a scare tactic, or a reward for the troops or in lieu of paying their wages they were set loose on a conquered city and given free reign for a couple of days, or a strategic policy of creating an empty area around their territory as a security cordon, or a number of other such rational motives. Still, the writers of the time were not unknown to exaggerate, especially if they had a stake in the matter. The first casualty of war is the truth and all that.
We were discussing the Spanish Inquisition and what responsibility the Spanish state and the Catholic Church had in it. You point out that not all religious persecution happened under the Church (along with implying that I do not know my history), I said it didn't and provided an example but that the Inquisitions (which were what we were talking about after all) did happen under the Church.
While being under the direct control of the Spanish monarchy?! (the spanish one i mean)...
Yes. Specifically sanctioned by the Pope, administered by the spanish clergy, operating under the spanish crown. Can't really say the Church wasn't involved.
I'm not really getting what you mean about us not being in Europe at the time.
I was talking about us, not you guys... you obviously didn't read enough
if you think Catholic Europe came about after Luther.
Oh for fuck's sake...
I don't know which orifice you drew
that conclusion out of. I understand it is a common internet debating tactic to be deliberately obtuse and purposefully misinterpret the other's points to mean the asinine, but most quote miners usually at least come up with strawmen made of things that weren't covered in elementary school.
Go ahead, find a single instance in this thread or elsewhere where I have said anything about Catholic Europe coming about after Luther. I dare you.